‘It is only the person who has property in goods (or its agent) who can validly sell goods to a buyer. No other person can make a valid transfer of the property in the goods to the buyer even if such purported seller has actual physical possession of the goods which he attempts or purports to sell’.Critically access the Latin maxim nemo dat quod non habet in accordance with section 28 (1) of Act 137 and its various exceptions under which the maxim operates. Question solved. This content is for members only.Unlock AnswerAlready a member? Log in here...